The adjusted 95% interval for the proportion based on a small sample is shorter than the usual 95%-interval. Does that mean that the coverage of the adjusted interval is less than 95%? Explain.
An analyst decided to use either the 95% t-interval for the mean or the corresponding 95% interval for the median, whichever was shorter. His sample was symmetric, so the mean and median are roughly the same in his population. What do you think of this approach?
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