Suppose the investments in the Barney-Jones model sometimes require cash outlays in more than one year. For example, a $1 investment in investment B might require $0.25 to be spent in year 1 and $0.75...

Suppose the investments in the Barney-Jones model sometimes require cash outlays in more than one year. For example, a $1 investment in investment B might require $0.25 to be spent in year 1 and $0.75 to be spent in year 2. Does the current model easily accommodate such investments? Try it with some cash outlay data you make up, run Solver, and interpret the results.