Suppose that fn(x) and f(x ) are functions R → R. Suppose also that fn converges uniformly to f as n → 0. Does the function f,(x) converge uniformly to f(x)?? Either prove that it does, or find a...

Question 2 : math real Analysis

Extracted text: Suppose that fn(x) and f(x ) are functions R → R. Suppose also that fn converges uniformly to f as n → 0. Does the function f,(x) converge uniformly to f(x)?? Either prove that it does, or find a counterexample.