Some philosophers have said that Paley’s argument is not an argument by analogy but is, rather, an “inference to the best explanation” (a kind of argument that your textbook explained in Chapter 2 in its discussion of Darwin’s argument). Explain how Paley’s argument can be explained as an “inference to the best explanation.”
Already registered? Login
Not Account? Sign up
Enter your email address to reset your password
Back to Login? Click here