Some critics claim that Berkeley is wrong to say we perceive our sensations and perceptions of things. These critics say we perceive things by means of our sensations and perceptions, but we do not...

Some critics claim that Berkeley is wrong to say we perceive our sensations and perceptions of things. These critics say we perceive things by means of our sensations and perceptions, but we do not perceive sensations and perceptions themselves. Would you agree with these critics? If these critics are right, would this make any difference to Berkeley’s argument for idealism?