Q1. A significant objective of the cost-as-an-independent-variable (CAIV) perspective is to: a. assure all technical requirements have been met b. reduce the total operating cost (TOC) associated with...

Q1. A significant objective of the cost-as-an-independent-variable (CAIV) perspective is to:
    a. assure all technical requirements have been met
    b. reduce the total operating cost (TOC) associated with programs
    c. make sure that a high quality deliverable is produced at any cost
    d. develop a quantitative model of project costs


Q2. What is the purpose of the bidders' conference?
    a. To enable the buyer to interact with successful bidders
    b. To enable the buyer to negotiate price with successful bidders
    c. To enable management to review bids that have been received by the buyer
    d. To enable the buyer to meet with prospective sellers prior to preparation of a proposal to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear, common understanding of the procurement


Q3. An exclusive license is most appropriate:
    a. for unique technologies
    b. for routine technologies
    c. only in the traditional industries
    d. when a small investment is needed to use a technology


Q4. Contract negotiation involves clarification and establishing mutual agreement between buyer and seller on the structure and requirements of the contract prior to the signing of the agreement.
    a. true
    b. false


Q5. Buybacks are a form of remuneration for licensing by which the licensor buys back stock shares in the licensee's business.
    a. true
    b. false


Q6. Which of the following is a tool that is used for performance measurement in contracting?
    a. Earned value estimates
    b. Resource leveling analysis
    c. Contractor technical capability analysis
    d. The Peter Principle


Q7. Performance-based payments on contracts are tied to the achievement of well-defined milestones.
    a. true
    b. false


Q8. Which of the following roles may the staff of a modern project support office play in contract management?
    a. Provides sponsorship
    b. Conducts risk assessment of a proposed project that an organization wants to bid on
    c. Negotiates detailed contract terms and conditions
    d. Has no role to play


Q9. An e-Business company has contracted the services of three consultancy firms to help install its newly acquired enterprise resource planning (ERP) technology. Which of the following can be used to distinguish one consultancy firm from the other?
    a. Patent
    b. Trademark
    c. Copyright
    d. Service mark


Q10. Performance-based contracts focus on:
    a. how the deliverable should be produced
    b. what should be produced
    c. human resource allocation
    d. financial management


Q11. Procurement planning involves selection of a suitable contractor to execute a project.
    a. true
    b. false


Q12. Grant-back provisions in a licensing agreement require that improvements the licensee makes to a licensed technology revert back to the licensor.
    a. true
    b. false


Q13. The Universal Copyright Convention extends copyright protection to translations of copyrighted works into foreign languages.
    a. true
    b. false


Q14. Unauthorized use of a trademark is called piracy.
    a. true
    b. false


Q15. Work for hire refers to work produced by employees and contractors within the scope of their employment contract.
    a. true
    b. false


Q16. An advantage of the Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract is that:
    a. it prevents schedule slippage
    b. the buyer faces no risk of cost overrun
    c. the buyer can attract higher quality sellers
    d. the seller loses through cost overruns


Q17. When an employee produces an invention as part of her job:
    a. ownership of the patent for the invention is assigned to her
    b. ownership of the patent for the invention is assigned to the employer
    c. her employer is given a compensatory title as the inventor
    d. her employer is designated both as inventor and patent owner because she used company resources and time to produce the invention


Q18. At its simplest, acquisition management can be viewed as:
    a. inventory management plus contract management
    b. operations management plus contract management
    c. project management plus contract management
    d. project management plus operations management


Q19. To protect the intellectual property of the buyer, a contractor is typically made to sign a:
    a. Non-competition agreement
    b. Conflict of interest agreement
    c. Non-disclosure agreement
    d. An indemnity bond


Q20. A proposal that reflects the seller's best and final offer is typically associated with a:
    a. Request for Proposal (RFP)
    b. Request for Quotation (RFQ)
    c. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract
    d. Invitation for Bid (IFB)


Q21. Which of the following contracting concepts is not associated with competitive procurements?
    a. RFP
    b. IFB
    c. RFQ
    d. Sole source bid


Q22. Indefinite delivery contracts are employed:
    a. on high risk contracts
    b. on low risk contracts
    c. when the buyer does not know how many items he/she needs
    d. when the seller is not sure how much should be charged for contracted work


Q23. Quality control is an aspect of contract administration.
    a. true
    b. false


Q24. In submitting proposals in response to an RFP, it is important that the bidder provides the following kinds of information: who will carry out the effort, what the bidder's capabilities are, and how much it will cost to engage in the proposed effort.
    a. true
    b. false


Q25. From a licensee's perspective, technology licensing is attractive because it:
    a. reduces dependence on the licensor
    b. promotes initiative in the use of a superior technology
    c. provides opportunities for the licensee's employees to learn new technology skills
    d. has few legal issues to contend with


Q26. In contracting, the term "volunteerism" refers to the situation where:
    a. contractors do not charge buyers for change requests
    b. team members agree to work on a contract without pay
    c. buyers "forgive" small instances of poor contractor performance
    d. contracts are carried out on behalf of non-profit organizations


Q27. To ensure efficiency in contract administration, administrative closure activities should be delayed until project completion.
    a. true
    b. false


Q28. Rapid prototyping is a technique geared to
    a. identifying customer requirements
    b. developing deliverables as quickly as possible
    c. building small deliverables
    d. maintaining spare parts for complex systems


Q29. One of the key characteristics of the Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) contract is that:
    a. it offers the buyer no leverage in dealing with sellers
    b. bonus payments are made to sellers based on subjective judgments about project performance
    c. there is no explicit payment of additional fees
    d. buyers face no risk of cost overruns


Q30. The value of a trademark depends on:
    a. its age
    b. who the founder of the company that holds the trade mark is
    c. the perceived quality of the trademarked good
    d. the aesthetic beauty of the trademark


Q31. The fair use principle allows reasonable use of copyrighted material only after permission has been obtained from the copyright owner.
    a. true
    b. false


Q32. A statement of objective (SOO) is:
    a. the same as statement of work
    b. the same as RFQ
    c. the same as IFB
    d. a high level description of what the buyer hopes to gain from the deliverable


Q33. Who bears most risk in a cost reimbursable contract?
    a. Seller
    b. Buyer
    c. Buyer and seller bear equal risk
    d. Seller and general public


Q34. With a pink team review:
    a. the project proposal is scrutinized late in the proposal development effort by a panel of people who play the role of customers
    b. the project proposal is scrutinized early in the proposal development effort by a panel of people who play the role of customers
    c. project pricing is carefully examined by pricing experts
    d. buyers make a preliminary decision on which bid should be granted a contract


Q35. Copyright law protects:
    a. the content of an idea
    b. the content and expression of an idea
    c. the expression of an idea
    d. patents and content of an idea


Q36. Which of the following is an example of a situation for which Fixed Price contracts are most appropriate?
    a. Production of routine deliverables
    b. One-of-a kind projects
    c. R&D projects
    d. Production of high risk deliverables


Q37. Buyers use SOWs to express their requirements.
    a. true
    b. false


Q38. A difference between an RFP and an IFB is that with an RFP:
    a. sealed bids are tendered and opened publicly at one time
    b. there may be no negotiations between buyer and supplier
    c. a request is made for bids whose terms eventually may be negotiated
    d. the objective is to request quotations


Q39. Under what conditions is an RFQ an appropriate mode of solicitation?
    a. When goods and services are already defined
    b. When dealing with non-routine efforts
    c. When an award fee can be identified
    d. When dealing with state-of-art efforts


Q40. In contracting, change control focuses on:
    a. contractor generated changes
    b. buyer generated changes
    c. changes to the contract scope coming from any source
    d. changes triggered by events in the environment


Q41. In contract and procurement management, data rights means:
    a. all communication between the buyer's Contracting officer and a prospective contractor should not be disclosed to other prospective contractors
    b. all communication between the buyer's Contracting officer and a prospective contractor must be disclosed to all other prospective contractors
    c. data developed in conjunction with project execution explicitly becomes the property of either the buyer or seller (or possibly both)
    d. once an RFP has been issued, the seller is under no obligation to provide additional information relating to the acquisition


Q42. The cost-as-an-independent-variable sees cost as the key project driver.
    a. true
    b. false


Q43. With performance work statements, attention focuses on defining outcomes.
    a. true
    b. false


Q44. Under a tie-in clause in a licensing agreement, the licensee is required to obtain complementary or competing technology from other sources to tie in with that obtained from the licensor.
    a. true
    b. false


Q45. Requirements addressing technical issues stated in non-technical terms are called
    a. business requirements
    b. functional requirements
    c. specifications
    d. statement of work


Q46. Collection of a down payment fee in technology licensing is used when:
    a. dealing with a licensee who is not economically sound
    b. dealing with exclusive license contracts
    c. dealing with non-exclusive license contracts
    d. it is difficult to access the licensee's "honest" books


Q47. When shipping a proposal to a client in response to a solicitation, it is a good idea to obtain a time-stamped receipt, indicating at what time the proposal arrived at the client's site.
    a. true
    b. false


Q48. Proposals coming from contractors who have unique skills in providing goods and services are called:
    a. best and final offers (BAFOs)
    b. negotiated proposals
    c. sole source proposals
    d. unsolicited proposals


Q49. Which of the following is an activity at the source selection stage?
    a. Product verification
    b. Project baseline verification
    c. Measuring work performance
    d. Evaluation of the contracting firm's qualifications


Q50. In a contractual agreement, where two or more players develop a new technology, by law the state assumes ownership of the patent of the technology on behalf of the players to avoid future conflicts between them.
    a. true
    b. false