Introduction to the Mathematics of Finance. Take-Home Midterm. Due March 10, XXXXXXXXXXp.m. Please write a pledge that you did not copy solutions from the work of other students. You can consult TAs...

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Answer To: Introduction to the Mathematics of Finance. Take-Home Midterm. Due March 10, XXXXXXXXXXp.m. Please...

Tanmoy answered on Mar 10 2021
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Finance – Corporate Finance
3. Using arbitrage arguments explain why the price of an American call option on a stock paying no dividends should be the
same as the price of a corresponding European call. Why American calls on a non-dividend paying stock should not be exercised early.
It’s showing CA = CE is equivalent to showing that it is not the best option to exercise the American Call option on a non-dividend which pays stock early. Firstly, the American call option holder can treat the option like European call and that there will be other possibilities as well i.e. he will be able to choose and exercise the option early. Therefore, CA >= CE. Also, the following is the formula:
CE>=So – Ke^ -rT > So – K
CA >= CE >= So – Ke^-rT> So – K
The American call is higher than intrinsic value except when the time to expiration is T = 0. We will not exercise early American call option based on the non-dividend payment. Thus the American call option on a stock paying no dividend will be same like the price of a corresponding European call.
4. Why when the stock pays dividends the argument of the problem No.3 cannot be used. Give a numerical example (choosing x, k, r, T −t, σ) in which it is obvious (without any formulas) that American put price on a non-dividend paying stock is larger than the corresponding European put price.
The example depicts the American put price on a non-dividend paying stock is larger than the European put price.
Let take an extreme case. So = 2, K = 102, r =...
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