In the biblical account, the children of Israel are held in slavery in Egypt for many years. At one point Pharaoh apparently considers freeing them, but God “hardened Pharaoh’s heart” and thus Pharaoh...

In the biblical account, the children of Israel are held in slavery in Egypt for many years. At one point Pharaoh apparently considers freeing them, but God “hardened Pharaoh’s heart” and thus Pharaoh refused to free the Israeli slaves. Most of us, surely, would say that what Pharaoh did was morally wrong: It is wrong to hold slaves in bondage. But if Almighty God hardened Pharaoh’s heart, then it is difficult to suppose that Pharaoh acted with free will. So is free will necessary for performing morally wrong (and morally right) acts? If you still believe that free will is essential for acting wrongly or rightly, how would you explain away this apparent counterexample?