In a recently conducted poll, 54 out of 200 people surveyed claimed to have a firearm in their homes. In a similar survey done earlier, 30 out of 150 people made that claim. Is it possible that the proportionIn a recently conducted poll, 54 out of 200 people surveyed claimed to have a firearm in their homes. In a similar survey done earlier, 30 out of 150 people made that claim. Is it possible that the proportion of the population having firearms has not changed and the foregoing is due to the inherent randomness in sampling?
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