If an athlete has a taste for discrimination, he discounts the actual wage paid if he has minority teammates. This means that he wants a wage premium. Some authors have argued that “an owner may be...

paid if he has minority teammates. This means that he wants a wage premium.

Some authors have argued that “an owner may be willing to pay the

wage premium demanded by a top player with a taste for discrimination

because there are no viable substitutes of equal ability.” Does this make

economic sense?