HAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION
1.
Which of the following is true
about a project?
A)It is a temporary endeavor undertaken
to create a unique product, process, or service.
B)It is an ongoing endeavor undertaken
to create and retire a unique product, process, or service.
C)It is a temporary endeavor undertaken
to create a temporary product, process, or service.
D)It is a unique endeavor undertaken to
create a temporary product, process, or service.
E)None of the Above
2.
Which of the following
describe a project? (Select all that apply):
A)A Business Problem
B)A Business Solution
C)An entity that operates in a static
environment
D)An entity that operates in a changing
environment
E)Answers B and D Only
3.
What is an operation?
A)Routine work by people in their
day-to-day jobs
B)Covert work by an undercover team
C)Work by a surgeon
D)The job of a computer operator
E)None of the Above
4.
The classic theory of triple
constraint refers to (Select all that apply):
A)Scope
B)Schedule
C)Cost
D)Quality
E)Answers A, B and C Only
5.
Project constraints as defined
within the PPA concept include (Select all that apply):
A)Scope
B)Schedule
C)Cost
D)Quality
E)All of the Above
6.
The output from project
execution can be:
A)A Product
B)A Process
C)A Product or a Process
D)A Highly Skilled Team
E)None of the Above
7.
Which of the following best
describes project management?
A)A state-of-the art software tool used
to manage a project to success
B)The art and science of effectively and
efficiently converting an idea into a viable software product
C)The art and science of effectively and
efficiently converting an idea into a viable product or process
D)The art and science of effectively and
efficiently converting an idea into a viable product or process through the use
of a project management tool
E)None of the Above
8.
The PPA consists of:
A)Six Stages
B)Five Stages
C)33 Steps
D)31 Steps
E)Answers A and C Only
9.
Stage gates in the PPA are
designed to assess:
A)Go decision
B)No Go decision
C)Go/ No Go decision
D)Go Back decision
E)None of the Above
10.
At a specific stage gate of a
project, the sponsor can (Select all that apply):
A)Open the stage gate and lets the team
proceed
B)Direct the team to rework certain
deficient area
C)Decide to initiate the project
suspension process
D)Ask the project office regarding the
current policies regarding the stage gate actions
E)Answers A, B and C Only
11.
Of the following, which PPA
stage typically consumes most time of the project team?
A)Idea
B)Pre-Launch
C)Launch
D)Execute
E)None of the Above
12.
Within the context of this
test, PMI stands for:
A)Presidential Management Intern
B)Pension Management Institute
C)Plumbing Manufacturers Institute
D)Project Management Institute
E)None of the Above
13.
Which of the following is the
correct definition of the term PMBOK®?
A)The evening hop of the African
Springbok
B)The evening walk of the Springbok
Scottish Terrier
C)Project management body of knowledge
D)The evening socials at the Springbok
club (NY/NJ)
E)None of the Above
14.
Which of the following is not
correct about the PMBOK®?
A)It consists of five processes groups
B)It consists of nine knowledge segment
groups
C)A given project plan consist of
information based on the nine knowledge groups
D)It specifically describes how to
execute the various steps needed to manage a project from start to finish.
E)None of the Above
15.
PMI provides certification
examinations for:
A)A. Certified Associates in Project
Management (CAPMâ¢)
B)B. Project Management Professional
(PMP®)
C)C. IT Project+
D)D. CMMI
E)E. Answers A and B Only
16.
CompTIA® provides
certification examinations for:
A)Certified Associates in Project
Management (CAPMâ¢)
B)Project Management Professional (PMP®)
C)IT Project+
D)CMMI
E)None of the Above
17.
Which of the following
statements is not correct?
A)Project development methodology is the
same as a system development methodology.
B)Project management methodology deals
with the processes and steps to manage a project.
C)System development methodology deals
with the steps to develop a system.
D)Product development methodology deals
with the steps to develop a product.
E)None of the Above
18.
Which of the following does
not qualify as software development methodology?
A)Joint Application Design (JAD)
B)Rapid application Design (RAD)
C)Rational Unified Process (RUP)
D)Project Process Architecture (PPA)
E)None of the Above
CHAPTER 2: FUNDAMENTALS
19.
The most appropriate tool for
decomposing high level items into lower level items is:
A)Histogram
B)Delphi
C)WBS
D)PERT Chart
E)None of the Above
20.
Which of the following is not
a component of a WBS?
A)Phases
B)Deliverables
C)Tasks
D)Stakeholders
E)None of the Above
21.
Project phase names can be:
A)Nouns
B)Verbs
C)Nouns or verbs
D)Adjectives
E)None of the Above
22.
Deliverable names:
A)Can be nouns
B)Can be verbs
C)Should be nouns
D)Should be verbs
E)None of the Above
23.
It is recommended that
deliverables be:
A)Longer than 20 days in duration
B)20 days or less in duration
C)20 days in duration
D)Depends on the size of the project;
the larger the project, the longer the duration of a deliverable
E)None of the Above
24.
For a deliverable to be well
defined, it should (Select all that apply):
A)Have at least one paragraph of
detailed description
B)Have clearly defined completion
criteria
C)Have a clearly defined owner
D)Be mandatory
E)Answers B and C Only
25.
Within a project schedule, a
milestone should appear:
A)At the end of every deliverable
B)At the start of every deliverable
C)Every eight days or less
D)Every ten days or less
E)None of the Above
26.
Which of the following
statements is not true?
A)The WBS identifies the project
elements that will need resources and thus is the primary input to resource
planning.
B)The WBS will be used to ensure that
all identified work has been estimated.
C)The WBS elements provide a progressive
breakdown from the big picture to smaller project elements.
D)The WBS elements will be used to
perform resource leveling to compress the project schedule.
E)None of the Above
27.
You are going to begin to plan
the resources for your project. In order to develop a comprehensive list of
people, equipment, and materials, the key input to the process is the
projectâs:
A)WBS
B)Responsibility assignment matrix
C)Expert judgment
D)Project charter
E)None of the Above
28.
Top-down approach of WBS
decomposition means:
A)Identifying specific activities
related to the project at the lowest level and then aggregating and organizing
them into higher levels
B)Identifying specific activities
related to the project at the highest level and then decomposing them into
successive lower levels
C)Having the more senior team members
decompose the higher level while junior team members decompose the lower levels
D)Decomposing only the top-level project
scope elements downwards
E)None of the Above
29.
An element inherently missing
from a WBS is:
A)Work Package
B)Tasks
C)Specific logical order of elements
D)Resources
E)None of the Above
30.
The various components of a
WBS can be assigned numbers in order to (select all that apply):
A)A. Define the parent and child
relationship among different levels of the WBS
B)B. Assign a unique identification to
each element of the WBS
C)C. Assign the order of execution of
various WBS elements
D)D. Provide traceability of
deliverables and tasks to specific requirements
E)E. Answers A, B and D Only
31.
Given a network of tasks, in
order to determine the length of time it would take to finish the work requires
that one computes the networkâs:
A)Critical Length
B)Critical Path
C)Critical Chain
D)Critical Effort
E)None of the Above
CHAPTER 3: IDEA STAGE
32.
The primary purpose of the
Idea stage is to:
A)Filter ongoing projects to reduce
scope
B)Filter approved projects to reduce
schedule
C)Filter ideas to separate viable ideas
from half-baked ideas
D)Filter ideas to reduce the number of
ideas
E)None of the Above
33.
Value-to-Business of a project
is best defined by:
A)The project manager as he/she has
experience with such information
B)A subject matter expert (SME) with
knowledge of the business value
C)Chief financial officer
D)The business area proposing the
project
E)Answers A and B Only
34.
Project stakeholders can be
classified into (select all that apply):
A)Policy level
B)Budget level
C)Implementation level
D)Schedule level
E)Answers A and C Only
35.
When developing a Project
Request, which of the following should not be included?
A)Value-to-Business
B)Specific solution to the problem
C)Assumptions
D)Estimates of cost and delivery
schedule
E)Answers B and D Only
36.
The person with the
responsibility to complete the project successfully is:
A)The sponsor
B)The program manager
C)The project manager
D)The team
E)Answers A and C Only
37.
You have recently been hired
as a project manager. During your orientation with the manager of the project
office you learn that the project selection is primarily the responsibility of
management. Which of the following is your best action?
A)You donât need to be concerned about
the project selection method of your new organization as that is not your
responsibility.
B)You need to be concerned about the
project selection method of your new organization only if you plan to move into
general management position.
C)You should learn about the project
selection method of your new organization.
D)You should avoid anything to do with
project selection method as it is typically fraught with corporate politics.
E)None of the Above
38.
You are in the initiation
phase of your project and ask the team members to be sure to document all
assumptions. One of the team members is not so keen on spending the time for
this activity. His explanation is that assumptions can change and he will be
required to spend more time in documentation activity. What would be your
response?
A)A. In case of schedule and/or cost
overrun, the team will have specific data to explain away such variances.
B)B. Assumptions generally involve a degree
of risk and need to be tracked.
C)C. Assumptions limit the project
teamâs options.
D)D. Report the team member to the
appropriate functional manager as the team member is not following your orders.
E)E. None of the Above
39.
At the end of the Idea stage,
there is:
A)No stage gate review, as it is too
early in the project
B)One stage gate review
C)A stage gate review only if the
project office requests it
D)All of the Above
E)None of the above
40.
The stage gate review at the
end of the Idea stage:
A)Is necessary only if the work on the
Idea stage step was substandard
B)Is necessary only if the people doing
the work are new to the organization
C)Is necessary for all projects
D)Is carried out only if the sponsor has
the time
E)None of the Above
OPM3 – CHAPTERS 1 AND 2
Kapurs Center for Project Management
– PPA Model for Success and Capability Maturity Model (CMM)
Please reference OPM3, Chapters 1 and 2 text material.
41.
OPM3 is designed to provide a
wide range of benefits to organizations, senior management, and those engaged
in project management activities. OPM3â¦
A)Strengthens the link between strategic
planning and execution, so project outcomes are predictable, reliable, and
consistent, and correlate with organizational success.
B)Identifies the Best Practices which
support the implementation or organizational strategy through successful
projects
C)Identifies the specific Capabilities
which make up the Best Practices, and the dependencies among these Capabilities
and Best Practices
D)Places Best Practices and Capabilities
within the context of not only Project Management, but also Program Management
and Portfolio Management processes
E)All of the Above
42.
Organizational project
management is the systematic management of projects, programs and portfolios in
alignment with the achievement of strategic goals.
A)True
B)False
43.
OPM3 is an acronym for the
Organizational Project Management Maturity Model â a standard developed under
the stewardship of the Project Management Institute.
A)True
B)False
44.
OPM3 also helps organizations
wishing to increase their organizational project management maturity to plan
for improvement.
A)True
B)False
45.
OPM3 provides a way to advance
an organizationâs strategic goals through the application of project management
principles and practices.
A)True
B)False
46.
Maturity assessment forms a
basis for deciding whether or not to pursue improvements in specific critical
areas, such as the domains of Portfolio, Program, or Project Management.
A)True
B)False
47.
The scope of OPM3 is global.
A)True
B)False
48.
Depending on the
organizationâs size, complexity, and sophistication, it may initiate or manage
multiple and interacting projects simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
49.
A Portfolio is a collection of
projects and/or programs and other work that are grouped together to facilitate
effective management of that work to meet strategic objectives.
A)True
B)False
50.
It may be helpful for the user
to think of OPM3 as consisting of three interlocking elements: Knowledge, Assessment,
and Improvement.
A)True
B)False
51.
In the Knowledge element, the
user becomes proficient with OPM3, to be comfortable with the body of Best
Practices knowledge it contains, with the idea of organizational project
management, with organizational project management maturity, and with the
concept and methodology of OPM3.
A)True
B)False
52.
In the Assessment element, the
organization is compared to OPM3 to determine its current location on a
continuum of organizational project management maturity.
A)True
B)False
53.
In the improvement element,
organizations that decide to move ahead with change initiatives leading to
increased maturity can use the results of the assessment as a basis for
planning, and move forward to implement the plan.
A)True
B)False
54.
The first step (Knowledge
element) is for the organization to prepare for the process of assessing its
organizational project management maturity in relation to OPM3.
A)True
B)False
55.
For those organizations
choosing to pursue organizational improvements leading to increased maturity,
the results of the previous step (step 2) will form the basis for an
improvement plan.
A)True
B)False
56.
The documentation of which
Capabilities the organization does and does not have â including the
dependencies among them â permits a ranking of needed Capabilities and Outcomes
according to their priority for the organization.
A)True
B)False