Even if everyone has his or her political rights protected today, can we really say that the poor and the powerless have much influence over who gets elected? Furthermore, even if the poor and the...

Even if everyone has his or her political rights protected today, can we really say that the poor and the powerless have much influence over who gets elected? Furthermore, even if the poor and the powerless are beneficiaries of the government’s services, doesn’t their lack of political power cast doubts on the degree to which the government rules with the “consent of the governed”? Does this theory idealize how political power really comes about?