Darwin objects to Paley’s argument, particularly Paley’s claim that the human eye has the marks of being designed by an intelligent being. Does Darwin’s objection interpret Paley’s argument as an argument by analogy or as an inference to the best explanation? In other words, is Darwin objecting to Paley’s analogy, or is he objecting to Paley’s explanation. Explain.
Already registered? Login
Not Account? Sign up
Enter your email address to reset your password
Back to Login? Click here