Berkeley states that we do not perceive anything “besides our own ideas or sensations.” In other words, we only perceive “our own ideas or sensations.” Do you think Berkeley’s statement is true? Have...

Berkeley states that we do not perceive anything “besides our own ideas or sensations.” In other words, we only perceive “our own ideas or sensations.” Do you think Berkeley’s statement is true? Have you ever perceived one of your sensations? If you did, what did it look like? Would it be more accurate to say you perceive things by means of your sensations but do not perceive the sensations themselves? Suppose that it is true that we perceive by means of our sensations but do not actually perceive the sensations themselves. If this is true, then how would it affect Berkeley’s argument for the claim that the world we see consists of nothing more than ideas and sensations in our minds? If we don’t really perceive our own sensations, would Berkeley’s argument be refuted?