Aristotle then claims these chains of means to further ends must terminate in “some end we seek for its own sake” and not as a means to a further end, because otherwise “there would be nothing for...

Aristotle then claims these chains of means to further ends must terminate in “some end we seek for its own sake” and not as a means to a further end, because otherwise “there would be nothing for which we ultimately do anything and everything would be pointless.” Is Aristotle’s claim true? That is, do you agree that if there was nothing we were ultimately seeking for itself, “everything would be pointless”? Explain why