Aquinas argued that a scriptual text can have more than one true interpretation. Luther, however, disagreed and claimed that scripture can have only one true interpretation and that the literal...

Aquinas argued that a scriptual text can have more than one true interpretation. Luther, however, disagreed and claimed that scripture can have only one true interpretation and that the literal meaning of a scriptural text is that one true interpretation. Who do you think is right? Why? Why do you think that Luther would not have wanted to allow any interpretation other than the one literal interpretation?