According to Bentham, an action “ought to be done” if it “has the tendency to augment the happiness of the community.” So we ought to seek the pleasure of others, not just our own. Is there any...

According to Bentham, an action “ought to be done” if it “has the tendency to augment the happiness of the community.” So we ought to seek the pleasure of others, not just our own. Is there any conflict between his view that we ought to seek the pleasure of others, and his earlier statement that pain and pleasure are our “sovereign masters” and “govern us in all we do,. . . say,. . . [and] think”? Explain.