A 34-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation for secondary amenorrhea of 8 months’ duration. She also reports occasional hot flushes. She has never been pregnant before. Her physical exam is within normal limits and a pregnancy test is negative. Prolactin (PRL) and TSH values are also within normal limits.You schedule her for a progestin challenge. Which of the following results is correctly matched to a plausible etiology of her secondary amenorrhea?
A. Withdrawal bleed seen with progestin challenge—Asherman syndrome
B. Withdrawal bleed seen with progestin challenge—premature ovarian failure
C. Withdrawal bleed seen only with estrogen/progestin challenge and FSH abnormally low—PCOS
D. Withdrawal bleed seen only with estrogen/progestin challenge and FSH abnormally elevated—premature ovarian failure
E. Withdrawal bleed seen only with estrogen/progestin challenge and FSH abnormally elevated—testicular feminization
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