40 married couples without children are asked to report the number of times per year they initiate a date night. The men report initiating an average of 9.3 date nights with a standard deviation of 4. Is there significant evidence to conclude that married men without children initiate date night more than 8 times per year at the 0.01 significance level? Note that there's evidence that this distribution is skewed.What are the hypotheses?
What distribution does the test statistic follow?
What is the value of the test statistic? Round to two decimal places.
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